How to prove there is no surjection $f\colon X \rightarrow 2^X$

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This is the following problem: Let $X$ be a set. Prove that there is not a surjection from $X \rightarrow 2^X$ (Hint: Assume to the contrary that $f\colon X \rightarrow 2^X$ is a surjection and consider the set $M=\{ x \in X | x \notin f(x) \}$). Use these facts to conclude that there is an infinite number of sizes of infinity cardinals.

My answer to the question is: This function is only bijective if its inverse is bijective and since $f(x)=\log(x)$ isn't bijective then the original function $f(x)=2^x$ isn't bijective. Since this function isn't bijective, then it isn't surjective.

As for the cardinality, I'm not sure what that really means. Thank you in advance for any hints or help!

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Suppose there is a surjection $f :X \to 2^X$. Recall that $2^X$ is the power set of $X$, and so consists of subsets of $X$.

As the hint suggests, consider the subset $M \subseteq X$ such that $M = \{x \in X : x \not \in f(x) \}$. Since $M \subseteq X$, $M$ is an element of $2^X$, and since $f$ is meant to be surjective, this means that there should be some $y \in X$ such that $f(y) = M$.

This gives us a contradiction however, because either $y \in M$, or $y \not \in M$. In the first case, the defining property of $M$ says that $y$ cannot be in $M$, giving a contradiction. In the second case, since $y \not \in M$, it must satisfy $ y \in f(y)$, again by the defining property of $M$. But this gives a contradiction since we've already said that $f(y) = M$.

Thus it follows that there can be no surjective map from $X$ to $2^X$.

Applying this argument to the case $X = \mathbb{N}$, we get a set $X_1$ with strictly larger cardinality than $\mathbb{N}$. Applying the argument to $X_1$ gives you another set $X_2$, with strictly larger cardinality than $X_1$. A simple induction argument will then give you an infinite family $\{X_n\}$ of infinity cardinals.