Prove that:
$ ( \forall x)(\forall y)(\exists z)((P(x)\Rightarrow Q(y)) \wedge \neg Q(z))$
is equivalent with
$ \neg((\exists xP(x) \lor \forall zQ(z))$
How should I attempt such problems? I tried a lot like changing the implication in a disjunction. I applied Morgan rules here and there...
It looks like I should use the transitivity rule to get rid of the Y but I didn't find how
EDIT: Corrected question, thanks to Mauro
Hint
We have to work with Prenex normal form equivalences.
The first formula is equivalent to :
By De Morgan, the second formula is :
The first one implies the second : if we have that $(∃z)¬Q(z)$ holds, then it is false that $(∀y)Q(y)$ and thus also $(∃x)P(x)$ is false.
Thus : $¬(∃x) P(x)$ holds.
The second one implies the first : if $¬(∃x) P(x)$ holds, then $(∃x)P(x) \to R$ holds, for $R$ whatever.
Thus : $(∃x)P(x) \to (∀y)Q(y)$ holds.