As we know $\sqrt{2},\sqrt{3}$ are irrational numbers. And I see some proofs on the net.
So I doubt that how $e,\pi$ or already known irrational numbers are proved to be irrational.
In fact, I got interested in Riemann zeta function $$\zeta(s)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^s},$$
we know $\zeta(2)=\pi^2/6$ from Euler, 1737.
One mathematician (sorry to forgot his name) proved $\zeta(3)$ to be also irrational 40 years before.
Can somebody explain how he could do with that? To understand Apéry's theorem, is it very hard?
An question raises that could one real number make up of two different irrationals (for example: $e,\pi$), $e\pi$, or others can be rational?
Some combinations of irrationals can be proved to be irrational in a more or less systematic way. For example, $e^\pi$ is irrational (and in fact transcendental) by Gelfond's theorem (see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gelfond%E2%80%93Schneider_theorem).
One approach to proving the irrationality of a number is to show that it is approximated "too well" by rational numbers $p/q$ where "too well" is assigned a specific meaning in terms of the denominator $q$. From this point of view, $e$ is irrational because the terms in the familiar power series defining it: $e=\sum 1/n!$ tend to zero rapidly, so that the partial sums give extremely good approximations of $e$.
To get more details, see Spivak's book "Calculus" where he proves irrationality of $\pi$ on page 307, and that $e$ is transcendental on page 409.