So I was interested in limits of the following form
$$\lim_{x\to\infty} (1+\frac{1}{x^n})^x \qquad n\geqslant1$$
when $n=1$, the limit is $e$, of course. I was then able to prove the limit approaches $1$ when $n\geqslant2$. I cannot figure out how deal with the case $1\lt n \lt 2$. I know it converges, but I can't figure out where it converges.
When $n=1$ it is easy to do!
Because $$(1+\frac{1}{x^n})^x =\left((1+\frac{1}{x^n})^{x^n}\right)^{\frac{1}{x^{n-1}}},n>1.$$ And use the result:If $a_n\to a>0$ and $b_n\to b$, then $a_{n}^{b_n}\to a^b.$
In this case, let $a_n=(1+\frac{1}{x^n})^{x^n}$ and $b_n=\frac{1}{x^{n-1}}$, so $a_n\to e$ and $b_n\to 0$, and the desired limit is $1$.