According the first line on page $2$ of this paper,
A smooth vector field $\xi$ on a Riemannian manifold $(M, g)$ is said to be a conformal vector field if its flow consists of conformal transformations or, equivalently, if there exists a smooth function $f$ on $M$ (called the potential function of the conformal vector field $\xi$) that satisfies $\mathscr{L}_{\xi} g = 2fg$, where $\mathscr{L}_{\xi} g$ is the Lie derivative of $g$ with respect $\xi$.
By the other hand, this paper that I'm reading define in a different way:
A vector field $X$ is conformal if $\nabla_j X_i + \nabla_i X_j = 2 \lambda g_{ij}$ for a function $\lambda$.
I would like to know how can I see the Lie derivative of the tensor metric $g$ in terms of Levi-Civitta connection.
I'm not familiar with the Lie's derivative, then I saw in Lee's Introduction to Smooth Manifold the following corollary:
$\textbf{Corollary 12.33.}$ If $V$ is a smooth vector field and $A$ is a smooth covariant $k$-tensor field, then for any smooth vector fields $X_1, \cdots, X_k$ ,
$$\mathscr{L}_V A = V(A(X_1, \cdots, X_k)) - A([V,X_1], X_2, \cdots, X_k) - \cdots - A(X_1, \cdots, X_{k-1}, [V, X_k]).$$
Denoting by $\partial_i := \frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}$, defining $X = X^k \partial_k$ and applying this corollary to the tensor metric, I obtained
\begin{align*} \mathscr{L}_X g &= X(g(\partial_i,\partial_j)) - g([X,\partial_i], \partial_j) - g(\partial_i, [X,\partial_j])\\ &= X^k \frac{\partial g_{ij}}{\partial x_k} + g \left( \frac{\partial X^k}{\partial x_i} \partial_i, \partial_j \right) + g \left( \partial_i, \frac{\partial X^k}{\partial x_j} \partial_j \right)\\ &= X^k \frac{\partial g_{ij}}{\partial x_k} + \frac{\partial X^k}{\partial x_i} g_{ij} + \frac{\partial X^k}{\partial x_j} g_{ij}. \end{align*}
I'm stuck here.
I also read on this Wikipedia's article that
$\mathscr{L}_X g = (X^c g_{ab \ ; \ c} + g_{cb} X_{; \ a}^c + g_{ac} X_{; \ b}^c ) dx^a \otimes dx^b = (X_{b \ ; a} + X_{a \ ; b})dx^a \otimes dx^b$. (This is the last example of the section of Coordinate expressions and was explained in the beginning of this section the notation "$;$")
I didn't understand how this computation was done, but it seems that the notation "$;$" is the same of "$\nabla$" given in the second paper linked, which lead me to think that $\nabla_i X^j$ it's just a notation for the covariant derivative of a coordinate $X^j$ of the vector field $X^k \partial x_k$ in the direction $\partial x_i$, if I'm right, then the work it's just understand why $\mathscr{L}_X g = (X_{b \ ; a} + X_{a \ ; b})dx^a \otimes dx^b$. Am I right? If I'm right, then how can I deduce the expression above?
Thanks in advance!
Look at this question, and answers therein, where it is explained why one can replace partial derivatives with covariant ones in this case (provided that $\nabla$ is torsion-free). Thus, the term with the derivative of the metric drops off, and you come to your second definition of conformal Killing fields.
For a general reference, see e.g. R.Wald, General Relativity, p.441.