Given that $\gcd(a,b) = 1$ and $\gcd(c,d) = 1$, show that $\gcd(ac,bd) = \gcd(a,d) * \gcd(b,c)$.
The work that I have done so far goes as follows.
We write $$\gcd(ac,bd) = acv + bdu$$ then $$\gcd(a,d) = ax + dy\quad\text{and}\quad\gcd(b,c) = bs + ct$$ and so \begin{align} \gcd(a,d) * gcd(b,c) &= (ax + dy) * (bs + ct) \\ &= axbs + axct + dybs + dyct \end{align} I tried to factor out some terms, and get $ax(bs+ct) + dy(bs+ct)$ but then I am stuck here. I don't know what else to use to prove the answer.
Let $x = \gcd(a,d)$ and $y= \gcd(b,c)$, then $xy\mid ac$ and $xy\mid bd$ so $\boxed{xy\mid z}$ where $z=\gcd(ac,bd)$.
Vice versa:
We can write $a=xa'$ and $d=xd'$ where $\gcd(a',d')=1$ and $b=yb'$ and $c=yc'$ where $\gcd(b',c')=1$
Now since $z\mid ac = xya'c'$ and $z\mid bd = xyb'd'$
Now if there is prime $p$ such that $p\mid z$ and $\gcd(xy,p)=1$ then $p\mid a'c'$ and $p\mid b'd'$. If $p\mid a'$ then $p\mid b'$ since $\gcd(a',d')=1$. But then $p\mid a$ and $p\mid b$ so $p\mid \gcd(a,b)=1$ a contradiction. So there is no such $p$ and thus $\boxed{z\mid xy}$