How to show if result hold for $C_{0}^{\infty}(\Omega)$ then also hold for $ W_{0}^{1, p}(\Omega)$?

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I was reading one lecture notes on p-Laplace equation.

Definition: Let $\Omega$ be a domain in $\mathbb{R}^{n}$. We say that $u \in W_{\mathrm{loc}}^{1, p}(\Omega)$ is a weak solution of the $p$ -Laplace equation in $\Omega$, if \begin{equation}\label{eq:1} \int\left\langle|\nabla u|^{p-2} \nabla u, \nabla \eta\right\rangle d x=0 \qquad\qquad (1) \end{equation} for each $\eta \in C_{0}^{\infty}(\Omega) .$ If, in addition, $u$ is continuous, then we say that $u$ is a $p$-harmonic function.

Author given following remark: Remark. If $(1)$ holds for all $\eta \in C_{0}^{\infty}(\Omega)$, then it also holds for all $\eta \in W_{0}^{1, p}(\Omega)$, if we know that $u \in W^{1, p}(\Omega)$.

I do not understand how to prove that. Does this follow from density argument?

Any help or hint will be greatly appreciated.

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It is exactly due to density argument. Did you remember how $W_{0}^{1, p}(\Omega)$ is defined? Recall:

Definition: The Sobolev space $W_{0}^{1, p}(\Omega)$ is defined as the completion of $C_{0}^{\infty}(\Omega)$ in the norm of $W^{1, p}(\Omega)$ $$ W_{0}^{1, p}(\Omega)=\overline{C_{0}^{\infty}(\Omega)}^{\|\cdot\|_{W^{1, p_{(\Omega)}}}} $$

What does this mean? It means that if I take a function $f$ in $ W_{0}^{1, p}(\Omega)$, I can always find a sequence of $C_{0}^{\infty}(\Omega)$ functions that converge to $f$ in $\|\cdot\|_{W^{1, p_{(\Omega)}}}$ norm, that means that I can find a $C_{0}^{\infty}(\Omega)$ function "as close as I want" (say $\varepsilon$ > $0$) to $f$ in $\|\cdot\|_{W^{1, p_{(\Omega)}}}$ norm. You see that now, in your definition, if you add and subtract a function $\eta \in W_{0}^{1, p}(\Omega)$, then you can still verify in the limit the equality for all $\eta \in W_{0}^{1, p}(\Omega)$.