Let $A$ be a integral domain and let $K$ be its field of fractions.
Show that for any $b \in A$,
$\operatorname{Hom}_A(A/(b), K/A)$ is isomorphic to $A/(b)$.
So I have a few questions.
1. I don't quite understand the notation $K/A$. Can someone explain it to me?
2. How do I begin the first step, that is to construct a homomorphism ?
The following general fact is well known: $\operatorname{Hom}_R(R/I,M) = \{m \in M ~|~ Im=0\}$.
Let $b \neq 0$.
In our case, this yields $\operatorname{Hom}_A(A/(b),K/A) = \{x \in K/A ~|~ bx=0\}$.
$bx=0 \in K/A$ means $bx \in A$, i.e. $x = \frac{a}{b} \in \langle \frac{1}{b} \rangle$ for some $a \in A$. Thus we have shown the desired
$$\operatorname{Hom}_A(A/(b),K/A) = \{x \in K/A | bx=0\} = \langle \frac{1}{b} \rangle \cong A/(b).$$
For the sake of completion: For $b=0$, we have
$$\operatorname{Hom}_A(A/(b),K/A) = \operatorname{Hom}_A(A/,K/A) = K/A \not\cong A = A/(b),$$
i.e. the statement is true for $b \neq 0$, but false for $b=0$.