I am confused how the Fourier sine series for 1-x, which is
$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{2}{(n\pi)} \sin(n \pi x)$
equals $1$ at $x=0$.
Thanks!
I am confused how the Fourier sine series for 1-x, which is
$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{2}{(n\pi)} \sin(n \pi x)$
equals $1$ at $x=0$.
Thanks!
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