In a book, it is claimed that the following function is obviously increasing as $x$ gets larger. I tried a few numerical examples for $x$, and it appears to be so. However, it is not clear to me how come it is so obvious. Could anyone point out the reason, please?
$g(x) := \frac{(65-x)*0.8^{65-x}}{1-0.8^{65-x}}; 0 < x < 65.$
My try is as below, let $x_1 < x_2$, it is only necessary to show that $g(x_1) / g(x_2) <1$. Hence,
$ \begin{align} \frac{g(x_1)}{g(x_2)} = \frac{65-x_1}{65-x_2} * 0.8^{x_2-x_1}*\frac{1-0.8^{65-x_2}}{1-0.8^{65-x_1}}. \end{align} $
It is not hard to see the first fraction term is greater than 1; the second term less than 1; and the third item also less than 1. However, it is not clear why the product of these three is less than 1. I guess this relates to the order of increase; i.e. linear increase/decrease is slower than exponential. However, I could not finish the above formula to reach the desired answer.
Moreover, is there any intuitive explanation why $g(x)$ is obviously increasing, please? Thanks.
Update:
I think Rhys' argument can explain when $x$ is small, but not when $x$ gets closer to the upper boundary. The plot of numerator and dominator as well as the function itself is as below. So it is still not clear to me why $g(x)$ is increasing when $x$ is close to 65.


It's "obvious" (I don't exactly agree as it took a minute to get my head round it) because the numerator of $g(x)$ is increasing; consider that if you have $$(\frac 45)^{30}\cdot 30=(\frac45)^{29}\cdot 24 $$ (when $x=35$), which is obviously smaller than the $(\frac45)^{29}\cdot 29$ (when $x=36$)
and its denominator is decreasing for the same reasons. Because of this, the function is increasing.