Aschbacher's Finite Group Theory is an excellent textbook, and its exercise 7.9.10 on page 104 is used to justify several assumptions in the chapter on classical groups.
Let $F$ be a field and $f$ a sesquilinear form on $V$ with respect to the automorphism $\theta$ of $F$, such that for all $x,y \in V$, $f(x,y)=0$ if and only if $f(y,x)=0$. Prove that either:
- $f(x,x)=0$ for all $x \in V$, $\theta=1$, and $f$ is skew symmetric, or
there exists $x \in V$ with $f(x,x) \neq 0$ and one of the following holds:
(a) $\theta=1$ and $f$ is symmetric
(b) $|\theta|=2$ and $f$ is similar to a hermitian symmetric form
(c) $|\theta|>2$ and $\operatorname{Rad}(V)$ is of codimension $1$ in $V$.
A function $f:V\times V \to F$ is called sesquilinear with respect to the field automorphism $\theta$ iff $f(ax+y,z) = a\cdot f(x,z) + f(y,z)$ and $f(x,ay+z) = \theta(a) f(x,y) + f(x,z)$ for all $a \in F$ and $x,y,z \in V$.
While trying to write up my own justification, I noticed this exercise is false. Take $V$ to be two-dimensional, $f(x,y)=0$ for all $x,y \in V$, and $\theta \neq 1$. The fix cannot be to assume $f$ is nondegenerate, since (2c) is explicitly degenerate. I hope however, the fix is simply a 3rd possibility, that $f(x,y)=0$ for all $x,y \in V$, but $|\theta|>1$ (I call such a form null).
I have shown that a skew symmetric form is either null or $\theta=1$. However, I am having trouble with case (2) [ so we assume $f$ is not skew-symmetric ].
If $\theta=1$, then I get that each individual $f(x,y)=\pm f(y,x)$, but I'm having trouble proving that only one sign occurs.
If $\theta\neq 1$, then I don't have much useful. In particular, I haven't shown $\theta^2=1$ or that $f(x,x)$ lies in the fixed field of $\theta$ (or at least that they all lie in the same coset).
For 2 (a), you have $f(x,x) = a \ne 0$ and you need to prove that there do not exist $y,z$ with $f(y,z) = b = -f(z,y)$.
Looking at the matrix of the form restricted to the space spanned by $x,y,z$, there seem to be two types that you need to rule out
$\left(\begin{array}{rr}a&b\\-b&c\end{array}\right)$ and $\left(\begin{array}{rrr}a&c&d\\c&0&-b\\d&b&0\end{array}\right)$, with $a,b$ nonzero in both cases.
In the first case, putting $u=(1,0)$, $v=(1,1)$ gives $f(u,v)=a+b$, $f(v,u)=a-b$, and we cannot have $f(u,v) = \pm f(v,u)$.
In the second case, considering $u=(1,1,1)$, $v=(0,1,0)$ forces $c=0$ and similarly $d=0$. and then $u=(1,1,0)$, $v=(1,0,1)$ gives a contradication.
I haven't had time to think about (b) and (c) yet!