How to evaluate the following integral?
$\int_{0}^{\infty} \sin(kx)dx=\frac 1 k$
The book Mathematical Physics by Butkov reads "The sequence $f_N(k)=\int_{0}^{N} \sin(kx) dx=\frac{(1-\cos kN)}k$diverges as N approaches $\infty$, but it is weakly convergent for a suitable chosen set of test functions $g(k)$ defined $0<k<\infty$." The problem is how to choose the test function?
Take $\varphi \in C_c^\infty ((0,\infty))$ and call $f_n(k) = \int_0^n \sin(ky) dy = \frac{1-\cos(nk)}{k}$. We would like to show that \begin{align*} \lim_{n \to \infty} \int_{0}^\infty \varphi(k) f_n(k) dk = \int_{0}^\infty \varphi(k) \frac{1}{k} dk \end{align*} which would show that as distributions on $C_c^\infty ((0,\infty))$, $f_n(k) \to \frac{1}{k}$. It suffices to show that \begin{align*} \lim_{n \to \infty} \int_0^\infty \frac{\varphi(k)}{k}\cos(nk)dk = 0 \end{align*} Notice that since $\varphi$ is a smooth function compactly supported away from $0$, $\frac{\varphi(k)}{k}$ is a continuous function of compact support on $\mathbb{R}$ and is therefore an $L^1$ function. The result now follows from the Riemann Lebesgue Lemma.