I know that system of polynomial equations $$ p_1(x_1,\dots,x_n)=0,..., p_N(x_1,\dots,x_n)=0 $$ has infinitely many solutions. I computed some of them numerically and notices that they always satisfy one more polynomial equation $$ q(x_1,\dots,x_n)=0. $$
I would like to prove that this is always the case.
Question: Does it exist a method to prove that that $q(x_1,\dots,x_n)=0$ follows from $p_1(x_1,\dots,x_n)=0,..., p_N(x_1,\dots,x_n)=0$?
Extra info: in my application $p_1, p_N$ contains terms of degrees $3$ and $0$, and $q$ contains terms of degree $6$,$3$, and $0$.
Hint: If you compute the row echelon form of the matrix given by the polynomial system, then the all-zero rows will be the redundant ones.