From Weinstock, "Calculus of Variations", p.24:
We have the readily verifiable identity
\begin{align}\frac{d}{dx}\left(y'\frac{\partial f}{\partial y'}-f\right) = y'\frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial y'}\right) - \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} - \frac{\partial f}{\partial y}y'=-y'\left[\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}-\frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial y'}\right)\right]-\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\end{align}
Where $f$ is $f(x,y,y')$ and $y$ is a function of $x$.
For some reason I can't seem to verify this identity. Applying the product rule didn't, to the extent of my (admittedly limited) knowledge, seem to help. What am I doing wrong?
Thanks to achille hui (and stated in p.5 of the quoted book), I see it now:
If $f$ is $f(x, y, y')$ and $y=y(x)$ then $$\frac{df}{dx}=\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}+y'\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}+y''\frac{\partial f}{\partial y'}$$
This way, $$\require{cancel}\begin{align}\frac{d}{dx}\left(y'\frac{\partial f}{\partial y'}-f\right)=y'\frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial y'}\right)+\cancel{y''\frac{\partial f}{\partial y'}}-\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}-y'\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}-\cancel{y''\frac{\partial f}{\partial y'}} =y'\frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial y'}\right)-y'\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}-\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\end{align}$$
Thereby proving the identity.