If i need chose groups of $n$ elements of a $m$, where $m \geq n$, we can solve by this way:
Example:
I have $5$ players, and I want to make groups of $3$, how many can I do?
Then, there are 5 players ($m$) and each player can make groups with the other $4$ players, and each one of these $4$ players can make groups with the other $3$, then the result is: $5 * 4 * 3 = 60$
With an analysis, problem like this can be solved with:
$V^m_n = m(m - 1)(m -2) ...(m - n + 1)$
I have been looking for intuitive and / or logical demonstrations, I have not found any.
So, how can I get from $V^m_n = m(m - 1)(m -2) ...(m - n + 1)$, to:
$V^m_n = \frac{m!}{(m-n)!}$
I have also been trying, and I have deduced that when i use $V^m_n = m(m - 1)(m -2) ...(m - n + 1)$, the amount of binomials create are $(n - 1)$, that are (m - 1) (m - 2) up to (m - n + 1)
PD: The idea is to prove it, ignoring that the formula existed.
By definition $m! = m*(m-1)*(m-2)*.......*3*2*1$.
And by definition $(m-n)! = (m-n)*(m-n-1)*(m-n-2)*....... * 3*2 *1$.
So $\frac {m!}{(m-n)!} = $
$\frac {m*(m-1)*(m-2)*.......*3*2*1}{(m-n)*(m-n-1)*(m-n-2)*....... * 3*2 *1}=$
$\frac {m*(m-1)*(m-2)*...*(m-n+2)(m-n+1)(m-n)(m-n-1)(m-n-2)*....*3*2*1}{(m-n)*(m-n-1)*(m-n-2)*....... * 3*2 *1}=$
$\frac {m*(m-1)*(m-2)*...*(m-n+2)(m-n+1)\color{red}{(m-n)(m-n-1)(m-n-2)*....*3*2*1}}{\color{red}{(m-n)*(m-n-1)*(m-n-2)*....... * 3*2 *1}}=$
$m*(m-1)*(m-2)*...(m-n+2)(m-n+1)$.
Ex: $\frac {17!}{8!} = $
$\frac {17*16*15*14*13*12*11*10*9*8*7*6*5*4*3*2*1}{8*7*6*5*4*3*2*1}=$
$\frac {17*16*15*14*13*12*11*10*9*\color{red}{8*7*6*5*4*3*2*1}}{\color{red}{8*7*6*5*4*3*2*1}}= $
$17*16*15*14*13*12*11*10*9$.
....
In a similar vein if $k < n$ we can always know that $k!|n!$ and $\frac {n!}{k!} = (k+1)(k+2)*....*(n-1)*n$
And that $n! = k!*(k+1)(k+2)*....*(n-1)*n$.
These are all considered to be inherent.