Hello please i have that $w_{\rho}(x)=h_{\rho}(x)w(x)$ where
$$w\in L^{\Phi}(\mathbb{R}^N)=\{u\in L^1(\mathbb{R}^N); \int_{\mathbb{R}^N}\Phi(\frac{|u|}{\lambda})dx<+\infty~\text{for some}~\lambda>0\}$$
and $h_{\rho}\in C^{\infty}(\mathbb{R}^N,[0,1])$ such that $h_{\rho}(x)\equiv 1~\text{on}~B_{\rho}(0),~\text{and}~ supp(h_{\rho})\subset B_{2\rho}(0)$
How to prove that $$ \int_{\mathbb{R}^N}\Phi(|w_{\rho_n}(x)-w(x)|)dx \overset{n\rightarrow+\infty}{\longrightarrow}0 $$
$(\rho_n)$ is a real sequence where $\rho_n\rightarrow +\infty,~\text{whene}~ n\rightarrow+\infty$
where $\Phi$ is a real positive convex function
the statement is wrong.
Consider the constant function $\Phi=1$ which is convex. Then the integral $$ \int_{\mathbb R^n} 1 \,\mathrm dx = \infty $$ and thus does not converge to $0$.
Edit: OP made same changes to the question and added non-obvious assumptions, but i am leaving my original answer up here.