And another task from an old exam:
Prove that $$\sum_{k=1}^{n}\frac{k}{(k+1)!}= \frac{(n+1)!-1}{(n+1)!}$$
for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$.
I smell proof by induction but I don't know how to do the start. I know how an induction proof is made up and done but I cannot really apply it on this task. Firstly, the sum symbol seems annoying for me, very annoying.
But I did the start by putting $k=1$ on the left side and $n=1$ on the right side:
$$\sum_{k=1}^{1}\frac{1}{(1+1)!} = \frac{(1+1)!-1}{(1+1)!}$$
$$\sum_{k=1}^{1}\frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{2}$$
which is true.
So if it works for one $n$, it should work for $n+1$ as well (here is another problem, shall I concentrate on the left or the right side..?!).
$$\sum_{k=1}^{n+1}\frac{k+1}{(k+2)!}= \frac{(n+2)!-1}{(n+2)!}$$
Hmm and from this point, also when it starts getting exciting, I didn't feel well continuing because... yeah the sum symbol is very confusing here.
Okay, maybe a little change that might look it a bit shorter / more nice:
$$\sum_{k=1}^{n+1}\frac{1}{k! \cdot (k+2)}= 1 - \frac{1}{(n+2)!}$$
Did I do it correctly till here at all? Is my approach of using induction correct...?
Since $k=(k+1)-1$ and $(k+1)!=(k+1)\cdot k!$ we have $$\sum_{k=1}^{n}\frac{k}{(k+1)!} = \sum_{k=1}^{n}\frac{1}{k!}-\sum_{k=1}^{n}\frac{1}{(k+1)!} = \color{red}{\frac{1}{1!}-\frac{1}{(n+1)!}}$$ i.e. a telescopic sum.