I am completely lost with the remark at 4.3.2.4, pg 273. It would be great if one could elaborate what is going on.
Is not by requirement that $(C^0/C)^{\triangleright} \rightarrow D$ is a $p$-colimit?
2026-03-27 08:44:21.1774601061
HTT, 4.3.2.4, Lurie , Kan Extensions
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