May be a stupid question but is $(\mathbb{Z}^n)_p \equiv \mathbb{Z}^n/(\mathbb{Z}p)^n$ (when $p$ is a prime)??
2026-03-29 18:30:48.1774809048
I don't understand this notation- abelian groups
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Without more context it's hard to know for sure, but this looks like a definition for $\left(\Bbb Z^n\right)_p$. It's being defined as the Cartesian product
$$\underbrace{\Bbb Z\times\dots\times\Bbb Z}_{n\,\mathrm{times}}$$
modulo the Cartesian product
$$\underbrace{p\Bbb Z\times\dots\times p\Bbb Z}_{n\,\mathrm{times}}\,.$$