1)if$$e = \lim_{n\to∞}(1+\frac{1}{n})^n$$
2)then how can this be correct $$e^x = \lim_{n\to∞}(1+\frac{x}{n})^n$$
3)shouldn't it be $$e^x = \lim_{n\to∞}((1+\frac{1}{n})^n)^x$$
how can the power $x$ just get inside the definition of $e$ as in case $2$. Someone please explain to to me this
The following extensive elaboration of Abezhiko's comment may help. To help keep the variables and constants apart in our mind, I'll use the specific number $17$ instead of $x.$
$$ e^{17} \; = \; \left[ \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \left(1 + \frac{1}{n} \right)^n \right]^{17} \; = \; \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \left[ \left(1 + \frac{1}{n} \right)^n \right]^{17} \; = \; \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \left(1 + \frac{1}{n} \right)^{17n} $$
The 1st equality is the result of raising both sides of your (1) to the $17$th power. The 2nd equality is by continuity of the function $f(t) = t^{17}.$ The 3rd equality is by a property of exponents. Continuing $\ldots$
$$ \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \left(1 + \frac{1}{n} \right)^{17n} \; = \; \lim_{17n \rightarrow \infty} \left(1 + \frac{1}{n} \right)^{17n} $$
This follows because the limit operation "$n \rightarrow \infty$" is the same as the limit operation $17 \rightarrow \infty$" (i.e. does nothing more and does nothing less). That is, $\;n \rightarrow \infty\;$ implies $\;17n \rightarrow \infty\;$ AND $\;17n \rightarrow \infty\;$ implies $\;n \rightarrow \infty.$ (Note, for example, that neither of the limit operations $n^2 \rightarrow \infty$ and $\frac{5}{n} \rightarrow \infty$ are the same as the limit operation $n \rightarrow \infty.)$ Now change variables by letting $m = 17n.$ Continuing $\ldots$
$$ \lim_{17n \rightarrow \infty} \left(1 + \frac{1}{n} \right)^{17n} \; = \; \lim_{m \rightarrow \infty} \left(1 + \frac{1}{n} \right)^{m} \; = \; \lim_{m \rightarrow \infty} \left(1 + \frac{1}{m/17} \right)^{m} \; = \; \lim_{m \rightarrow \infty} \left(1 + \frac{17}{m} \right)^{m} $$
The 1st equality is the result of replacing two occurrences of $17n$ with $m.$ The 2nd equality is the result of replacing $n$ with $m/17$ (note that from $m = 17n$ we get $m/17 = n).$ The 3rd equality is by arithmetic (division can be accomplished by inverting and multiplying).
At this point we have the limit you wanted, except that the letter $m$ is used instead of the letter $n,$ and $17$ is being used instead of $x.$ However, since this letter is a dummy variable in the present context (see also this MSE answer), we have
$$ \lim_{m \rightarrow \infty} \left(1 + \frac{x}{m} \right)^{m} \; = \;\; \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \left(1 + \frac{x}{n} \right)^{n} \; = \;\; \lim_{u \rightarrow \infty} \left(1 + \frac{x}{u} \right)^{u} \; = \;\; \lim_{@ \rightarrow \infty} \left(1 + \frac{x}{@} \right)^{@} \; = \;\; \cdots $$
Of course, in the above we wouldn't want to use the letter $x$ for the dummy variable. Knowing which symbols we CAN'T replace a dummy variable by in a given expression is usually obvious in practice, but if you're interested, the precise restrictions involve the notion of free and bound variables.