Why is this:
$I(Z(y-x^{2},z-x^{3}))=(y-x^{2},z-x^{3})$
"obvious"?
I can easily see $Z(y-x^{2},z-x^{3}) = \lbrace (k,k^{2},k^{3}) \vert k \in\mathbb{A}^{1} \rbrace$
but I have some problems when I need to take the ideal of this.
Why is this:
$I(Z(y-x^{2},z-x^{3}))=(y-x^{2},z-x^{3})$
"obvious"?
I can easily see $Z(y-x^{2},z-x^{3}) = \lbrace (k,k^{2},k^{3}) \vert k \in\mathbb{A}^{1} \rbrace$
but I have some problems when I need to take the ideal of this.
$(y-x^2,z-x^3)$ is a radical ideal, in fact prime ideal, because $k[x,y,z]/(y-x^2,z-x^3)=k[x]$. Now use Hilbert's Nullstellensatz. (Alternatively, a direct computation also works.)