I'm taking an introductory class on linear algebra, we don't know anything about rank, kernel, or determinants yet.
I'm asked to show that if $A^2=A$ for a matrix $A$ with elements in a field $F$, and if the rows of $A$ form a basis for the space $F^n$, then $A=I_n$.
My proof went something like this: We cannot have A be the zero matrix, since that wouldn't form a basis with its rows for $F^n$. Now assume that $A\neq I_n$. This implies that $A^2 \neq A$. This is a contradiction, therefore we must have $A=I_n$.
What's wrong with my argument? I don't understand why I can't reason with the inequalities this way. It works in a field like $\mathbb{R}$, why not here? I also know it must be wrong, since there are an infinite number of matrices with this property, but I can only find 0 and "1".
An important comment first: if $A\ne I$ you can't assert that $A^2\ne A$. Try with $$ A=\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix} $$ Thus, unfortunately, your attempt is not good.
Suppose $x$ is a row vector and let $a_1,a_2,\dots,a_n$ be the rows of $A$. Then $$ x=\sum_{i=1}^n \alpha_i a_i $$ for a unique choice of the scalars $\alpha_1,\dots,\alpha_n$, which amounts to saying that $$ x=[\alpha_1\ \alpha_2\ \dots\ \alpha_n]A $$ that is, $x=yA$ for a unique row vector $y$. Then $$ x=yA=yA^2=(yA)A=xA $$ Hence $yA=xA$ and the uniqueness of $y$ yields $x=y$. Hence $x=xA$ for every row vector $x$.
Can you finish?