In a proof from a textbook they use the following identity (without proof):
$$\dfrac{x^n-y^n}{x-y} = \sum_{k=1}^{n} x^{n-k}y^{k-1}$$
Is there an easy way to prove the above? I suppose maybe an induction proof will be appropriate, but I would really like to find a more intuitive proof.
It's basically a homogeneous version of the geometric sum formula. Assume w.l.o.g. that $y \neq 0$. Then \begin{align*} \frac{x^n-y^n}{x-y} &= y^{n-1}\frac{(\frac{x}{y})^n-1}{\frac{x}{y}-1} = y^{n-1}\left( \left(\frac{x}{y}\right)^{n-1} + \left(\frac{x}{y}\right)^{n-2} + \ldots + 1 \right) \\ &=x^{n-1} + x^{n-2}y + \ldots + xy^{n-2} + y^{n-1} \end{align*}
More generally, for a polynomial $f = f_0 + f_1+\ldots +f_d$ of degree $d$ where $f_i$ is the term of degree $i$, denote by $f^*$ the homogenization $f^* = y^d f_0 + y^{d-1}f_1 + \ldots + f_d$, i.e. multiply everything by a suitable power of $y$ such that all terms have degree $d$. Then it is easily checked that $(fg)^* = f^* g^*$. Apply this to the geometric sum formula $$x^n - 1 = (x-1)(x^{n-1} + \ldots + x + 1)$$ and you get the desired identity.