If $2\cos\alpha_1=a+\frac1a$,$2\cos\alpha_2 =b+\frac1b$, etc... then show that $abc +\frac{1}{abc} + ... = 2 \cos(\alpha_1 + \alpha_2 + ...)$
I don't get how to solve this problem. I tried the following strategy :
$$(\cos\alpha_1+i\sin\alpha_1)(\cos\alpha_2+i\sin\alpha_2)...(\cos\alpha_n+i\sin\alpha_n)=\cos(\alpha_1+\alpha_2+...+\alpha_n)+i\sin(\alpha_1+\alpha_2+...+\alpha_n)=\cos\alpha_1\cos\alpha_2...\cos\alpha_n(1+is_1+i^2s_2+\cdots),$$ where $$s_1=\Sigma \tan\alpha_1,s_2=\Sigma\tan\alpha_1\tan\alpha_2,\cdots,s_k=\Sigma\tan\alpha_1\tan\alpha_2\cdots\tan\alpha_k.$$ Thus, $$\cos(\alpha_1+\cdots+\alpha_n)=\cos\alpha_1\cos\alpha_2\cdots\cos\alpha_n(1-s_2+s_4-\cdots)$$
But this doesn't reduce to something favourable for solving the problem. Also, I think there might be a loophole in my strategy as in the question it's not specified clearly whether they consider a finite number of terms or not as they write $\alpha_1+\alpha_2+\cdots$, while I assumed a finite number of $\alpha_i$'s i.e $\alpha_1+\cdots+\alpha_n$ in my strategy( Is the question at all valid?). I dont quite get it...
For a better homogeneity, instead of $a,b,c...$, I take $a_1,a_2,a_3...$.
Let $f$ be the function defined by
$$f(x)=\frac12 \left(x+\frac{1}{x}\right)$$
allowing the hypotheses to be written in the following way :
$$\text{for} \ k=1,2\cdots n, \ \ \cos(\alpha_k)=f(a_k)\tag{1}$$
But, for $x>0$, function $f$ takes values always $\ge 1$ with equality iff $x=1$.
As a consequence, as the values of cosine function are between $-1$ and $+1$, conditions (1) amounts to
$$\text{for} \ k=1,2\cdots n, \ \ \cos(\alpha_k)=1$$
Therefore $\alpha_k = 0 \ (\text{mod} \ 2 \pi)$.
For the general case with numbers $n=3$ for example, with the following interpretation of the question (not sure it is the right one...) ; let :
$$A:=a_1a_2\cdots a_n\tag{2}$$
$$\underbrace{A+\frac{1}{A}}_{1+\tfrac{1}{1}}=2 \cos(0+0+0+\cdots)\tag{3}$$
which is evidently true.
$$\cos(\alpha_1)=f(-1)=-1 \iff \alpha_1 = \pi \ (\text{mod} \ 2 \pi)$$
The consequence is that $A$, defined by (2), become equal to $-1$.
Then (3) is changed into :
$$\underbrace{A+\frac{1}{A}}_{-1+\tfrac{ \ \ 1}{-1}}=2 \cos(\pi+0+0+\cdots)\tag{3'}$$
which is again true.
If there are more than one $a_k$ which is $<0$, it turns out that with an odd number $(2p+1)$ of negative values, we fall into case (3'), because $\cos((2p+1)\pi) = -1$, otherwise we are in case (3).