I'm posed with the problem in the title,
Let $a,b,c\in\mathbb{Z}$. Then if $(a,c)=1$ and $(b,c)=1$, prove $(ab,c)=1$.
(By the way, $(a,c)=1$ means that the greatest common divisor of $a$ and $c$ is $1$, hence they are relatively prime.)
I know that $(a,c)=1$ and $(b,c)=1$ means the following:
$$\exists x_1,x_2,x_3,x_4\in\mathbb{Z} \textrm{ such that } ax_1+cx_2 = bx_3+cx_4=1$$
So that means we have to two linear equations:
$$ \begin{align*} ax_1+cx_2&=1\\ bx_3+cx_4&=1 \end{align*} $$
And we want to manipulate them into something of the form
$$(ab)x_5+cx_6=1, \,\, \exists x_5,x_6\in\mathbb{Z}$$
because that would then prove that $(ab,c)=1$. I just can't figure out how to do it.
Is this approach alright, or is there a better one? Could you nudge me in the right direction?
Multiply the two equations you have and see the magic.