I am sorry for this simple and easy question.
Is it true that If $A\in O(n)$ and $\det A=-1$ then $A^2=I$ ?
I know that $\det (A^2-I)=0$ (because $(A-A^t)^t=-(A-A^t)$) then its all eigenvalues are $1$. So it is similar to identity and hence $A^2=I$
- Is my argument correct?
- Any proof without using eigenvalues and characteristic polynomial?
For $n=2$, the orthogonal group has elements of two forms: $$ \begin{bmatrix} \cos(\theta)&-\sin(\theta)\\\sin(\theta)&\cos(\theta) \end{bmatrix}\qquad \begin{bmatrix} -\cos(\theta)&\sin(\theta)\\\sin(\theta)&\cos(\theta) \end{bmatrix} $$ For matrices of the first type, the determinant is $1$, for matrices of the second type, the determinant is $-1$.
Squaring an element of the second type gives the identity, so the claim is true for $n=2$, by explicit calculation.
For $n\geq 3$, @AnginaSeng's answer can be extended via a block matrix. If the matrix in that answer is $A$, then $$ \begin{bmatrix}A&0\\0&I_{n-3}\end{bmatrix} $$ has the same properties (its square is not $I_n$) and is in $O(n)$.