Let $A$ a subset of $(V,\| \cdot \|)$, where $V$ is a vector space. Let $\overline{A}$ denote closure of $A$. Show that if $x \in V$ then $\overline{x + A} = x + \overline{A}$.
Attempt:
$(\Rightarrow)$ Consider $y \in \overline{x + A} = (x + A) \cup (x + A)'$ where $(x + A)'$ is the set of limit points.
$$ \Rightarrow \quad y \in x + A \quad \textrm{or} \quad y \in (x + A)'$$
Scenario 1: $y \in x + \overline{A}$ (in which case we are done).
Scenario 2: $ y \in x'$ and $y \in A'$.
Continuing with Scenario 2: Since $y \in x'$ but $x'$ is just an element which means $y = x = \overline{x}$. Since $y \in A'$ this means $y \in \overline{A}$. Therefore $y \in x + \overline{A}$.
$(\Leftarrow)$ Let $y \in x + \overline{A}$.
Then $y = x$ and $y \in A \cup A'$
This means: $y \in x + A$ and $y \in x + A'$.
Scenario 1: $y \in x + A$. If this is the case we are done because $x + A \subset \overline{x + A}$.
Scenario 2: $y \in x + A'$. This means $y = x$ and $y \in A'$. Which means $y\ = x = \overline{x}$ and $y \in A'$ means $y \in \overline{A}$. Which implies $y \in \overline{x + A}$.
Comment: I may be overthinking thing a bit, but I don't really think this is the right way to answer this problem. I never used the notion of norm given to me and I feel that does have a key part to play. Feedback on my approach ?
It is easier to show that $y\in \overline{x+A}$ if and only if $y-x\in\overline{A}.$
If $y-x\in\overline{A}$ then for any $\epsilon>0$ there is an $a\in A$ such that $\|y-x-a\|<\epsilon.$ But then letting $a'=x+a\in x+A,$ we have for any $\epsilon>0$ an $a'\in x+A$ such that $\|y-a'\|<\epsilon,$ so $y\in \overline{x+A}.$
On the other hand, if $y\in \overline{x+A}$ then for any $\epsilon>0$ there exists $a'\in x+A$ with $\|y-a'\|<\epsilon.$ then letting $a=a'-x\in A$ we have, for any $\epsilon>0$ an $a\in A$ such that $\|y-x-a\|=\|y-a'\|<\epsilon.$ So $y-x\in \overline{A}.$
From the comments, there is some confusion, perhaps because the readers do not know this lemma:
If $x\in A,$ and any $\epsilon>0,$ you can choose $a=x\in A$ and get $d(x,a)=0<\epsilon.$
If $x\in A',$ then you can use the definition of limit point to prove this.
On the other hand, we need to show that if $x$ satisfies the $\epsilon$ statement for all $\epsilon>0$ then $x\in\overline{A}=A\cup A'.$
If $x\in A$ then $x\in\overline{A},$ so we only need to check that the cases where $x\not\in A,$ then show the $\epsilon$ statement implies $x\in A'.$