Prove or disprove:
If $a \equiv b \pmod m$ and $c \equiv d \pmod m$ then $a^c \equiv b^d \pmod m$.
Please help I've been working on this for days
Prove or disprove:
If $a \equiv b \pmod m$ and $c \equiv d \pmod m$ then $a^c \equiv b^d \pmod m$.
Please help I've been working on this for days
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Have you tried any examples?
How about $m=4$, $a=b=2$, and $c=1$, $d=5$.
Then $a \equiv b \pmod m$ and $c \equiv d \pmod m$.
But $a^c = 2^1 \equiv 2 \pmod 4$ and $b^d = 2^5 = 32 \equiv 0 \pmod 4$.
Thus $a^c \equiv 2 \not \equiv 0 \equiv b^d \pmod 4$.