So there exists $A^{-1}$. I am assuming $\det(AB)=\det(A)\cdot\det(B)$ and $(A^d)^f=(A^{df})$
I know the proof for $\det(A^{-1})=(\det(A))^{-1}$ is:
$\det(I_n)=1$
$\det(A\cdot A^{-1})=1$
$\det(A)\cdot \det(A^{-1})=1$
$\det(A^{-1})=\frac1{\det(A)}=(\det(A))^{-1}$
But I'm not sure how to prove it when it's $n\in\mathbb{Z}$, and that if A is not invertible then for all $n\in \mathbb{N}$
By your assumption, $$ \det(A^1)^n = \det(A^{1 \cdot n}) $$