Let $a$ be an integer, $a\ge2$. If $a^{m}+1\mid a^{n}+1$ then prove that $m\mid n$.
Actually I know a similar proof which is, $a^{m}-1\mid a^{n}-1 \iff m\mid n$, but I can't prove this. I also need some examples of the question.
Can't seem to find any correlation between the two proofs.
I seem to not find examples where $a$ is something different from $2$ and taking $m=2$.
Please help. I think 4-5 examples might help me to see the proof.
Suppose $\gcd(m,n)=d$. $$s=\gcd(a^{2m}-1,a^{2n}-1)=a^{2d}-1$$ But obviously $a^m+1\mid s$, so $$a^m+1\mid a^{2d}-1,$$ so $$m < 2d\Rightarrow d>\frac m2.$$ But $d\mid m$, so $d=m$ which means $m\mid n$.