If $a(n) + b(n) \in \Omega(p(n))$, then $a(n) \in \Omega(p(n)) \vee b(n)\in \Omega(p(n))$.
I believe this statement to be false. Am I wrong? What functions should I use to show a disproof or a proof?
2026-03-28 12:14:50.1774700090
If $a(n) + b(n) \in \Omega(p(n))$, then $a(n) \in \Omega(p(n)) \vee b(n)\in \Omega(p(n))$.
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