If $a,p\in\mathbb{N}$ with $p$ prime, have to show that if $a²\equiv1\pmod p $, then $a\equiv1\pmod p$ or $a\equiv p-1\pmod p$
I'm studying congruence, and I have no idea where to start this demonstration, if anyone can do it, preferably detailed, or go giving ways, and I doing, I will thank enough.
Hint: The ring $\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}$ is a field, so the polynomial $x^2-1$ has at most $2$ solutions over $\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}$.