If an polynomial has a complex root, is it necessary that the conjugate of that root is also a root of the polynomial? I am not sure about this. Please comment on this.
If an polynomial has a complex root, is it necessary that its conjugate is also a root?
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Yes. Let $p(x) = a_nx^n+...+a_0$ and suppose $z$ is a root to $p(x)$. Then, $p(z)=0$. Let's consider $\bar{z}$. $$ a_n\overline{z}^n+a_{n-1}\overline{z}^{n-1}+...+a_0. $$ We know from the property of complex numbers that the above is equal to the following $$ a_n\overline{z^n}+a_{n-1}\overline{z^{n-1}}+...+a_0. $$ $$ =\overline{a_n{z}^n+a_{n-1}{z}^{n-1}+...+a_0.} $$ $$ =\overline{p(z)}=\overline{0}=0 $$ Thus, $\overline{z}$ is a root to p(z) as well.
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Key Idea $ $ Conjugation $\rm\:w\,\mapsto\, \overline w\:$ preserves $\rm\:\color{#c00}{sums\,\ \&\,\ products}.\:$ and $\rm\:\color{#0a0}{fixes\ reals}\in\color{#0a0}{\Bbb R},\:$ therefore by induction, it preserves polynomials functions of such: $\rm\ \overline{f(w)} = f(\overline w),\ \ f(x)\in\color{#0a0}{\Bbb R}[x],\ $ having all $\,\rm\color{#0a0}{real}$ coefficients, since such polynomials are compositions of said basic operations. $ $ Explicitly
$\begin{eqnarray} \rm \overline{f(w)} &=&\rm \ \overline{a_n w^n +\,\cdots + a_1 w + a_0}\\ &=&\rm\, \overline{a_n w^n}\, +\,\cdots + \overline{a_1 w} + \overline a_0\ \ by\ \ \ \color{#c00}{\overline{x+y}\, =\, \overline x + \overline y}\ \ \ \forall\ x,y \in \Bbb C\\ &=&\rm\, \overline a_n\, \overline w^n+\,\cdots + \overline a_1\overline w + \overline a_0\ \ by\ \ \ \color{#c00}{\overline{x\, *\, y}\, =\, \overline x\, *\, \overline y}\ \ \forall\ x,y \in \Bbb C \\ &=&\rm\, a_n\, \overline w^n + \,\cdots + a_1 \overline w + a_0\ \ by\ \ \ \color{#0a0}{\overline a = a}\ \ \forall\ \color{#0a0}a\in \color{#0a0}{\Bbb R}\\ &=&\rm\ f(\overline w)\\ \rm\!\! So\ \ 0\! =\! f(w)\! \ \Rightarrow\ 0\! =\! \bar 0\! =\! \overline{f(w)}& =& \rm f(\overline w),\ \ i.e.\ \ w\ root\ of\ f\,\Rightarrow\, \overline w\ root\ of\ f\quad {\bf QED} \end{eqnarray}$
This usually fails if $\rm\,f\,$ has nonreal coefficients, e.g. $\rm\,\bar w\,$ is a root of $\rm\,x\!-\!w\,$ iff $\rm\,\bar w = w,\,$ i.e. $\rm\,w\in \Bbb R.$
Remark $\ $ The analogous polynomial preservation property holds true for any algebraic structure, i.e. since homomorphisms preserve the basic operations (including constants = $0$-ary operations), they also preserve the "polynomial" terms composed of these basic operations. Said equivalently, homomorphisms commute with polynomials.
If the polynomial has real coefficients, then the answer is yes.
Indeed, let $\displaystyle p:=\sum_{i=0}^na_ix^i\in\mathbb{R}[x]$ and $z\in\mathbb{C}$ such that $p(z)=0$. Then, one has: \begin{align} p(\overline{z})&=\sum_{i=0}^na_i\overline{z}^i\\ &=\sum_{i=0}^na_i\overline{z^i}\\ &=\sum_{i=0}^n\overline{a_iz^i}\\ &=\overline{\sum_{i=0}^na_iz^i}\\ &=\overline{p(z)}\\ &=0 \end{align} Therefore, $\overline{z}$ is a root of $p$.
However the result might be false if $p$ has complex coefficients.
Note that this fact can be generalized in the following fashion: