what I've already done is I showed
$d \mid ck_{1}$ and $d \mid ck_{2}$ where $ck_1$ and $ck_2$ are $a$ and $b$
since $d$ is the gcd, then $d\geq c$ and if $d = c$, then $\gcd(\frac{a}{c},\frac{b}{c}) = \gcd(k_1,k_2)= 1 = \frac{d}{c}$.
but now I don't know how to prove when $c<d$
Maybe I am in wrong direction? Could anyone show me how to do this step?
It's very good that you looked at a special case.
Have you learned about Bezout's Theorem?
This theorem tells us that since $\gcd (a, b)=d$, there exist integers $x, y$ such that $ax+by=d$. Now dividing both sides by $c$ we get $\dfrac ac x + \dfrac bc y = \dfrac dc$. All of the fractions are integers (why?). Applying Bezout's Theorem again we conclude that $\gcd \left(\dfrac ac, \dfrac bc \right)$ divides $\dfrac dc$. Now if we can show the other way around, namely that $\dfrac dc$ divides $\gcd \left(\dfrac ac, \dfrac bc\right)$, we would be done. How can we show this? By showing that $\dfrac dc$ divides both $\dfrac ac$ and $\dfrac bc$. And indeed, since $d|a$, $a=dk$ for some $k \in \mathbb{Z}$ so $\dfrac ac = \dfrac dck$; and again the fractions are integers. The exact same argument can be used for $\dfrac bc$, so we are done.