Let $f_n : [a, b] → \Bbb R$ be a sequence of constant functions (that is, for each fixed $n ∈ \Bbb N,\: f(x) = f(y)$ for all $x, y ∈ [a, b]$. Show that if $f_n → f $ uniformly, then $f$ is also a constant function.
So far what I have is that I understand the fact that a constant function means it is continuous but the opposite is not true. As such, I am trying to model my proof that when $f$ converges uniformly on an interval, then f is continuous on the same interval but I am a little unsure on how to use this foundation to prove that $f$ is constant function instead of continuous.
Suppose that $f(x_1)\neq f(x_2)$ and take $\varepsilon=\frac12\bigl\lvert f(x_1)-f(x_2)\bigr\rvert$. Then, if $n$ iis large enough, you have$$(\forall x\in[a,b]):\bigl\lvert f_n(x)-f(x)\bigr\rvert<\varepsilon.$$But $f_n$ is a constant function $k_n$. So, $\bigl\lvert k_n-f(x_1)\bigr\rvert<\varepsilon$ and $\bigl\lvert k_n-f(x_2)\bigr\rvert<\varepsilon$ and therefore…