The above snap from Dummit and Foote book pg no. 57 suggests this result. Any explanation of the same will be appreciated.
2026-03-28 03:53:09.1774669989
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if $d=\gcd(n,a)$ and $n=db,a=dc $ then prove that $\gcd(b,c)=1$
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You have $\gcd (n, a) =d$ and we know that by the property of GCD, $d$ must be the largest number that divides both $a$ and $n$.
Consequently, $$\gcd (\frac{n}{d}, \frac{a}{d}) = 1$$
Here, $\frac{n}{d} = b$ and $\frac{a}{d} = c$.
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Since we are given $G.C.D(n,a) = d$, We know that $d$ is the highest common divisor to both $a$ and $n$. Now we substitute $n = db$ and $a = dc$ and show that $G.C.D(b,c) = 1$ because if $b$ and $c$ had any common divisor bigger than $1$ , then it should also divide $a$ and $n$ which contradicts the fact that $d$ is the biggest divisor

Apply bezout's formula, $$kn+la=d$$ $$\Longrightarrow kb+lc=1$$