If each theorem in intuitionistical is instantion of axiom ?

Question

I consider intuiniotistical logic in following form: (axioms):
(1) $\phi\to (\psi\to\phi)$
(2) $(\phi\to (v\to \psi)) \to ((\phi\to v)\to (\phi\to v))$
Is it correcto to say that each theorem of this logic is instantion of axioms (1) and (2) ?