If $f:[0,1]\to \mathbb{R}$ such that $f(x)=x$ if $x\in \mathbb{Q}$ and $f(x)=0$ if $x\in \mathbb{Q}^c$, then using Riemann sum show that f is not Riemann Integrable over $[0,1]$.
Riemann sum: If $f:[a,b]\to \mathbb{R}$ be a function and $(P,T)$ is a tagged partition such that $P=\{x_0, x_1, ..., x_n\}$ where $a=x_0<x_1<...<x_n=b$ and $T=\{t_0, t_2, ...t_{n-1}\}$ for $t_i\in [x_i, x_{i+1}]$ then the Riemann sum is $S(P,T,f)=\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}f(t_i)(x_{i+1}-x_i)$.
Using it how to show this? How to take $P$ and $T$ suitably to show this? Please help.
Let $(P,T)$ be a tagged partition such that $$ P={x_0,x_1,...,x_n}$$ where $$ a=x_0<x_1<...<x_n=b$$ and $$T={t_0,t_2,...t_{n−1}}$$ for $$t_i∈[x_i,x_{i+1}]$$ then the Riemann sum is $$S(P,T,f)=∑_{i=0}^{n−1}f(t_i)(x_{i+1}−x_i)$$
You can find a rational number $q_i$ and an irrational number $r_i$ in $ (x_{i-1}, x_i)$.
If we pick $t_i=q_i$, the rational points, and evaluate the Riemann Sum, we get a positive number which approaches to $1/2$ as $n \to \infty $.
On the hand if you pick $t_i=r_i$, irrational numbers, the Riemann Sum is $0$.
The limits do not match. Thus the Riemann integral does not exist.