if f is a measurable function and $A$ a null set, is $f(A)$ a null set?

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i've proven that for countable $A$ this is absolutely true, but i don't think this statement is true for uncountable A. I've tried to make a function with the cantor set but i still haven't found a real good counterexample.

help would be appreciated!

Kees

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It's not even true for continuous functions. Try the Cantor function.

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The result is certainly true for absolutely continuous functions and diffeomorphisms. The classical counter-example is the Cantor function, as already pointed by Robert Israel.