Let $f:\mathbb R\to\mathbb R$ be continuously differentiable at $a\in\mathbb R$ with $f(a)=0$ and $f'(a)\ne0$.
It's intuitively trivial, but how do we formally prove that $a$ is an isolated point of $\left\{x\in\mathbb R:f(x)=0\right\}$, i.e. there is a $\delta>0$ with $f(x)\ne0$ for all $x\in B_\delta(a)\setminus\left\{a\right\}$?
It might be crucial to note that, since $f'$ is continuous at $a$, there is a $\delta>0$ with $$\operatorname{sgn}f'(x)=\operatorname{sgn}f'(a)\;\;\;\text{for all }x\in B_\delta(a)\tag1.$$ By this observation it's obvious that the claim is true, but how do we show it formally?
Remark: Maybe we need to slightly strengthen the assumption and assume that $f$ is continuously differentiable in a neighborhood of $a$.
Note that, since $f(a)=0$,\begin{align}\lim_{h\to0}\frac{f(a+h)-f(a)}h=f'(a)&\iff\lim_{h\to0}\frac{f(a+h)}h=f'(a)\\&\iff\lim_{h\to0}\frac{f(a+h)-hf'(a)}h=0.\end{align}So, there is some $\delta>0$ such that$$\lvert h\rvert<\delta\implies\bigl\lvert f(a+h)-hf'(a)\bigr\rvert<\bigl\lvert hf'(a)\bigr\rvert.$$But then $\lvert h\rvert<\delta\implies f(a+h)\neq0$.