I am trying to prove the following statement:
If $f$ is integrable on $\mathbb{R}$ with respect to the Lebesgue measure $m$, the sequence $f(x+n) \to 0$ for $n \in \mathbb{N}$ as $n \to \infty$ for almost every $x \in [0,1]$
I know somewhere I have to use the fact that the Lebesgue integral is translation invariant, which I have proven. Now, my problem is to find something I can work with, but I am very lost.