The question is as in the title.
Let $f_n$ be weakly convergent to $f$ in $L^1[0,1]$. That is, for any $\phi \in L^\infty[0,1]$, we have \begin{equation} \int_{[0,1]} f_n\phi \to \int_{[0,1]}f\phi \end{equation} as $n \to \infty$.
Next, for any $g \in L^1[0,1]$, the convolution $f_n *g$ is in $L^1[0,1]$ by Young's inequality. However, I cannot prove / disprove if $f_n *g$ converges to $f*g$ weakly in $L^1[0,1]$ as $n \to \infty$.
Could anyone please help me?
Let $\phi \in L^{\infty}$. First note that $$ \int |(f_n*g)(x)\phi(x)|\ \mathrm{d}x \le \Vert \phi\Vert_{L^{\infty}}\Vert f_n * g\Vert_{L^1} < \infty $$ by Young's inequality. Hence by Fubini-Tonelli, $$ \begin{align*} \int (f_n*g)(x)\phi(x)\ \mathrm{d}x &= \int\int f_n(y)g(x-y) \phi(x)\ \mathrm{d}y \mathrm{d}x \\ &= \int f_n(y)\int g(x-y) \phi(x)\ \mathrm{d}x \mathrm{d}y \\ \end{align*} $$ Furthermore by Young's inequality, $$ \int g(x-y) \phi(x)\ \mathrm{d}x \in L^{\infty}, $$ being the convolution of $g(-\cdot) \in L^1$ with $\phi \in L^\infty$. Thus $$ \int f_n(y)\int g(x-y) \phi(x)\ \mathrm{d}x \mathrm{d}y \to \int f(y)\int g(x-y) \phi(x)\ \mathrm{d}x \mathrm{d}y $$ by weak convergence of $f_n$.