If $f:R\to R$ is bounded on bounded intervals, and $\lim f(x+1) - f(x) = L$ when $x\to +\infty$ then $\lim f(x)/x = L$ when $x\to +\infty$
I found answers here at the site when $f$ is differentiable, but I just don't know what to use in this case, where we don't have differentiability (at least not explicitly stated). Any help would be appreciated.
My attempt :)
Notation: $\Delta g(x)=g(x+1)-g(x)$.
Theorem:
Let $f, g: R^+ \rightarrow R$ bounded in each bounded interval , $g$ crescent, with $$\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \frac{\Delta f(x)}{\Delta g(x)}=L\;\;\; \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} g(x)= \infty $$ so $$\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \frac{ f(x)}{ g(x)}=L .$$
Proof: Given $\varepsilon>0$ exists $x>M$ such that
$$ \varepsilon- L< \frac{\Delta f(x)}{\Delta g(x)}< \varepsilon +L $$
$g$ is crescent then $\Delta g(x)>0$ so we can multiply the inequality by that term. Change $x$ by $x+k$ where $k$ is natural and apply the sum $\sum^{n-1}_{k=0}$, which results in
$$ (\varepsilon- L) (g(x+n)-g(x))+f(x)< f(x+n)< (\varepsilon +L) (g(x+n) - g(x)) +f(x)$$
by the telescopic sum. Now divide by $g(x+n)$, which is positive because $g \rightarrow \infty$
$$ (\varepsilon- L) (1-\frac{g(x)}{g(x+n)})+\frac{f(x)}{g(x+n)}< \frac{f(x+n)}{g(x+n)}< (\varepsilon +L) (1-\frac{g(x)}{g(x+n)}) +\frac{f(x)}{g(x+n)}$$ now we use sequences.
We take $x=y_n$ in $[M, M+1]$ and $x_n=n+y_n$ ( $x_n$ is an arbitrary sequence with infinite limit) $g$ and $f$ are bounded in $[M, M+1]$ so
$$(\varepsilon- L) (1-\frac{g(y_n)}{g(x_n)})+\frac{f(y_n)}{g(x_n)}< \frac{f(x_n)}{g(x_n)}< (\varepsilon +L) (1-\frac{g(y_n)}{g(x_n)}) +\frac{f(y_n)}{g(x_n)} $$
the limit ensures $\lim \frac{f(x_n)}{g(x_n)} = L $ because $g(y_n)$ and $f(y_n)$ are bounded and $\lim g(x_n)=\infty$ $\qed$.