If $\frac {a_{(n+1)} }{a_n} < \frac {n^2}{(n+1)^2}$ and if $a_n > 0$ for all n . Then what can we say about the series $\sum a_n$?
Can anyone please help me by giving some hints? I can not find any counter example to show that the series may not converge. Is it true?
Write the given inequality as
$$ a_{n+1} < (n^2 a_n)/(n+1)^2.$$
Then all it takes is to iterate the above, i.e., using that
$$ a_n < ((n-1)^2a_{n-1})/n^2,$$
We arrive at
$$ a_{n+1} < ((n-1)^2 a_{n-1})/(n+1)^2.$$
By now it should be clear that we can continue up until we reach the first term of the sequence. In other words, we may prove by induction that
$$ a_{n+1} < a_1/(n+1)^2.$$
Of course, the series formed by the terms on the RHS in the above inequality converges, and therefore, by comparison, so does the original one.