$$\frac{\alpha +i\beta-(\alpha-i\beta)z}{1-z}$$ Since it’s purely real $$\beta \frac {1+z}{1-z}=0$$
$$\beta \ne 0$$
$$\frac{1+z}{1-z}=0$$
Clearly $z\ne 1$. How do I find the other conditions?
$$\frac{\alpha +i\beta-(\alpha-i\beta)z}{1-z}$$ Since it’s purely real $$\beta \frac {1+z}{1-z}=0$$
$$\beta \ne 0$$
$$\frac{1+z}{1-z}=0$$
Clearly $z\ne 1$. How do I find the other conditions?
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Substitute $w=\frac{w+\bar{w}}{2}+\frac{w-\bar{w}} {2}\rightarrow\bar{w}=\frac{w+\bar{w}}{2}-\frac{w-\bar{w}}{2}$ to the equation
$$ \frac{w-\bar{w}z}{1-z}=\frac{w+\bar{w}}{2}+\frac{w-\bar{w}}{2}\frac{1+z}{1-z} $$
$\frac{1+z}{1-z}$ is pure imaginary if $(1,0)$, $z$, $(-1,0)$ form a right triangle with right angle at $z$. Therefore $z$ lies on a circle with $(1,0)$ and $(-1,0)$ as its diameter.
to conclude, $z$ lies on unit circle centered on origin except $(1,0)$
We don't know whether $z$ is purely real or not. So you can't ignore $\alpha z$
$$\Rightarrow\frac{\alpha+i\beta-(\alpha-i\beta)z}{1-z} = \frac{\alpha(1-z) +i\beta(1+z)}{1-z} = \alpha+i\beta\frac{1+z}{1-z}$$
Let $z = x+iy$
$$\Rightarrow \alpha + i\beta\frac{(1+x)+iy}{(1-x)-iy} = \alpha+i\beta\frac{((1+x)+iy)((1-x)+iy)}{(1-x)^2+y^2} = \alpha+i\beta\frac{1-x^2-y^2+2yi}{(1-x)^2+y^2} = \alpha + \frac{\color{blue}{i\beta(1-x^2-y^2)}-2y\beta}{(1-x)^2+y^2}$$
Now equate the imaginary part to zero.
$$\Rightarrow x^2+y^2 = 1 $$
But $z\ne 1 \Rightarrow x \ne1,y\ne0$
So, $z = x+iy$ represents a unit circle which has a hole at $(1,0)$