My question is in the title: Prove this statement.
Immediately before this question, I proved that $\langle g \rangle$ is a subgroup of $G$. The question specifies $G$ is a finite group.
My attempt:
By the previous question, provided that g is in G, then $\langle g \rangle$ is a subgroup of G. $\langle g\rangle$ is not the identity nor is it G itself unless G = $\langle g \rangle$ (in which case G is cyclic). So we can write $G = ${$e,g,g^2,...,g^{o(g)-1}$}. If G is cyclic, it's order may be prime or non prime. For the purposes of the question, say |G| is nonprime. Then we can write a subgroup as {$g^n$}, where $0<n<o(g)$ so as to exclude the trivial case. Done (I think).
If |G| ≠ |$\langle g \rangle$|, and in particular, |G| < |$\langle g \rangle$| by Lagrange, then |G| is not prime (since it is not equal to it's cyclic group) and so $\langle g \rangle$ qualifies as a subgroup.$\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\blacksquare$
Is it okay?
MASSIVE EDIT: Question should say |G|$> 1$ is NOT prime. Apologies.
If $|G|>1$ is not prime, say $|G|=ab$ with $a,b>1$. Select $g\in G\setminus\{1\}$. If $\langle g\rangle \ne G$, we are done. Otherwise, the order of $g$ is $ab$ and we can consider $\langle g^a\rangle$ instead, which has order $b$.