If $G$ is a finite union of some of its abelian subgroups, then the index of the center of the group is finite
Would I not simply state that by Lagrange's theorem, $Z(G)$ can divide into the abelian subgroups, and the abelian subgroups can divide into $G$? This solution seems too obvious and intuitively wrong. Also I don't know how to approach the question if $G$ was infinite, thank you!
A sketch of a proof is as follows:
First prove that if $H,A_1,\ldots,A_n\leq G$ are abelian subgroups and $G=H\cup\bigcup_i A_i$, then if $H$ has infinite index, then $G=\bigcup_i A_i$.
This is the hard part (though I would appreciate a simpler explanation), I believe: to show this, choose arbitrary $h\in H$ and:
Then apply this to $G=\bigcup_i A_i$ (finite union) to deduce that you can assume that each $A_i$ has finite index.
Then under the previous assumption, show that $\bigcap A_i$ is a finite index subgroup of $G$ and that it is contained in the center.