If $G$ is a group with $|G|\ge2$ and has no subgroups except the two trivial ones, then $G$ is cyclic and of prime order.

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So I'm working with algebra and have to deal with this problem. I can't see the logic to start the problem. I know the definition of a group and cyclic group. Any suggestion would be so great! I'm using the book from Hungerford.

Problem: Prove that if $G$ is a group with $|G|\geq2$ and no subgroups except for the two trivial ones (i.e. $\{e_G\}$ and $G$) then $G$ is cyclic and of prime order.

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If $|G| \geq 2$, then $G$ has some prime factor $p$. By Cauchy's theorem, $G$ has an element $g$ with order $p$.

Consider the subgroup generated by $g$. This subgroup is a cyclic group of $p$ elements. But since the only nontrivial subgroup is $G$ itself, we conclude that this subgroup is indeed $G$, and so $G$ is cyclic with prime order.

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As $G\ne\{e_G\}$, you can pick $a\in G\setminus\{e_G\}$. Then the subgroup $\langle a\rangle$ generated by $a$ is $\ne\{e_G\}$, hence $G=\langle a\rangle$ is cyclic. The order of $a$ must be either $1$, or a prime, or composite, or infinite.

  • As $a\ne e_G$, the order cannot be $1$.
  • If it is infinite, it makes $G=\langle a\rangle\cong \Bbb Z$, but that has additional subgroups, e.g. $2\Bbb Z$.
  • If it is composite, say $nm$ with $n,m\ge 2$, we similarly have $G\cong \Bbb Z/nm\Bbb Z$, which has $n\Bbb Z/nm\Bbb Z$ as additional subgroup.

Remains only the option that the order is prime.

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One doesn't need to assume $G$ is finite: every infinite group has proper nontrivial subgroups. Indeed, take $g\in G$, $g\ne1$. If $\langle g\rangle$ is proper, we're done; otherwise $\langle g\rangle=G$; in this case we have $$ \{1\}\subsetneq\langle g^2\rangle\subsetneq\langle g\rangle=G $$ Suppose now $G$ is finite. Take $g\in G$, $g\ne 1$. If $\langle g\rangle\ne G$, we're done. Otherwise $\langle g\rangle=G$. If the order $n$ of $g$ is composite, say $n=ab$, with $1<a<n$, then the order of $g^a$ is less than $n$ and greater than $1$. Therefore $\{1\}\subsetneq\langle g^a\rangle\subsetneq\langle g\rangle=G$.

Thus the assumption can only hold for $|G|$ a prime and in this case it indeed holds, because subgroups can only have order $1$ or $|G|$.