Let $\varphi:G\to G$ . and $\varphi(g) = g^{-1}$ which I said as inverse map.
First, I proof $\varphi$ is an isomorphism by checking bijection and homomorphism.
and I know the theorem which said the inverse of isomorphic map is also isomorphic. Thus I said identity map is isomorphic.
I noted that $G$ is infinite cyclic group, so it is isomorphic to $\Bbb Z$.
So I thought the operation on $G$ should be addition "+".
Then I conclude the theorem that there is no other function that can goes from $G$ to $G$.
But I need some exact proof and want to know it's wrong or not.
Because the group is cyclic, $G=\langle g\rangle$, we have $f(G) = \langle f(g)\rangle$. Since it is a homomorphism, if $f(g) = kg$ then
In order for this to be surjective, $g\in f(G)$ hence $nk=1$ for some $n$ and therefore $k|1$ by definition, but then $k=\pm 1$ is necessarily the case.