I am curious if $G/N\cong H$ then $G=NH$?
($N$ is a normal subgroup of $G$, and $H$ is a subgroup of $G$.)
With this setup, we get that $NH$ is a subgroup of $G$ so $NH\subset G$. I am not sure about the other inclusion.
Thanks!
I am curious if $G/N\cong H$ then $G=NH$?
($N$ is a normal subgroup of $G$, and $H$ is a subgroup of $G$.)
With this setup, we get that $NH$ is a subgroup of $G$ so $NH\subset G$. I am not sure about the other inclusion.
Thanks!
No. Let $G=C_8$, $N=C_4$, $H=C_2 \subset N$. Then $NH=N \ne G$.